Faith in Yeshua and subsequent consistent actions are the evidences of salvation. Paul continued his argument regarding who can be saved.
Romans 10:11-13 (KJV)
For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed.
For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.
For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
In verse 11 Paul quoted from Isaiah, although it may not seem like it from most of our English translations.
Isaiah 28:16 (KJV)
Therefore thus saith the Lord GOD, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste.
Isaiah 28:16 (Amplified)
16) Therefore thus says the Lord God, Behold, I am laying in Zion for a foundation a Stone, a tested Stone, a precious Cornerstone of sure foundation; he who believes (trusts in, relies on, and adheres to that Stone) will not be ashamed or give way or hasten away [in sudden panic].
Paul, in agreement with Isaiah, stated that "he" who believes in the foundation stone will not be ashamed. In Ephesians 2:20 Paul identified the foundation stone as Yeshua.
Ephesians 2:20 (KJV)
And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
Paul also clarified that the "he" of Isaiah 28:16 is in essence "whosoever." He further explained in verse 12 that the "whosoever" refers to both Jews and Gentiles. There is no difference between their ability to be saved, because the same Lord is over all and is rich to ALL who call upon Him. Paul repeated his thought in verse 13 replacing the "will not be ashamed" with "shall be saved."
Two things to notice in Paul's discussion are 1.) salvation is limited to those who call, and 2.) there is no change from the Old Testament to the New Testament. Consequently, salvation is not limited to any certain group, it is open to all, and it requires a choice on the would-be believer's part. Secondly, faith is the requirement of salvation in both the Old and New Testaments. The Old Testament does not teach a works based salvation.
Finally, in verses 12 and 13, there is reference to the Lord. Since "Lord" is a title and not a name, who is being referred to here? Christianity has long assumed that the reference is to Jesus/Yeshua, but is this correct? The Greek is not a help either, since "Kurios" (the Lord) is also a title. However, in the Aramaic Bible in Plain English and in the Complete Jewish Bible, the actual name of God appears (YHVH in Hebrew). This makes sense in light of the following:
John 17:11 (KJV)
And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are.
As Yeshua was in prayer, He asked that the Father keep through HIS OWN NAME those whom He had given to Yeshua.
Jeremiah 16:19-21 (KJV)
O LORD, my strength, and my fortress, and my refuge in the day of affliction, the Gentiles shall come unto thee from the ends of the earth, and shall say, Surely our fathers have inherited lies, vanity, and things wherein there is no profit.
Shall a man make gods unto himself, and they are no gods?
Therefore, behold, I will this once cause them to know, I will cause them to know mine hand and my might; and they shall know that my name is The LORD.
Jeremiah prophesied that the Gentiles would come one day to God and that they would know His Name. In the Hebrew "The LORD" is the four letter name of the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (YHVH).
Paul may have been referring to YHVH and not Yeshua. Something to think about!